Immanuel Kant writes that “there are minds so sympathetically constituted that, without any motive of vanity or self-interest, they find a pleasure in spreading joy around them, and can take delight in the satisfaction of others so far as it is their own work. But I maintain that in such a case an action of this kind, however proper, however amiable it may be, has nevertheless no true moral worth,” (Bailey, p.64). Explain how he can make such a claim. Do you find this claim to be plausible? If so, why. If not, why not?
Oh great..... I thought I was done with that god damn essay.